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Squeeky Brown said: 1 Cor 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and through whom we live. (NKJ)


My reply: I find it irrelivant to simply quote lists of scriptures without giving any contextual background and explaining the meaning of words and context. Anyway, here is a previous saved post of mine on this verse.


“Though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or on earth; as there are gods many, and lords many. Yet to us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we unto him; and one lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and we through him.” (1st Corinthians 8:5,6-ASV).

This chapter commences with an examination of various foods offered to idols (verse 1), and then the eating of such foods (verse 4). Paul continues to then make a contrast between these idols, and the one true God at verse 4. At verse 5 Paul then distinguishes between these idols whom he terms “so-called gods,” and the one true God of the Scriptures. He then goes onto say in verse 5 that in contrast to the one true God, there are many “lords and gods.” This is a direct reference to these aforementioned false idols of verse 1, and it is important to note that Paul used and links together both of the terms “god” and “lord,” as if they were equivalent terms.

Then in verse 6, the text does not state that ONLY God the Father is alone God. The text rather states that there is one God, and that the Father is himself this one God. So Scripture does not contradict the fact that the Son (Hebrews 1:8 , and Holy Spirit (Acts 5:3-4), are also called “God” in the Bible. Furthermore the Son (Hebrews 1:10) and Holy Spirit (Acts 28:25-27), also possess this divine name “YHWH” which is applied to them in New Testament quotations of Old Testament verses. So the one God is not the Father alone, but is rather the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit.

So this problem is resolved if we understand that the terms “God” and “Lord” are interchangeable, their being equivalent terms used at 1st Corinthians 8:6 to distinguish between the Father and the Son each as deity. So to call the Son “Lord” doesn’t imply a lack of deity on the Son’s part. A similar example in the Old Testament would be the use of the term “elohim” (God) at Genesis 1, and “YHWH” (LORD), at chapter two. These two terms are completely interchangeable, and do not imply two different Gods, or two levels of deity for two separate beings, because they’re interchangeable. So the “elohim” of Genesis 1:1, 1:2 and 1:3 etc, is also said to be the “YHWH” of Genesis 2:5, 2:7 and 2:8, they’re not different beings or deities.

So with consideration to the hermeneutical background, which we’ve now discovered in Genesis, notice that at John 20:28, Jesus Christ is called both “Lord” and also “God” within the same verse, just as at Psalm 35:23-24, from which John was originally quoting, Yahweh himself is also called both “LORD” (YHWH) and “God” within the same verse. John is therefore applying the divine name ‘YHWH’ from Psalm 35:23-24 directly to Jesus at John 20:28! So in each case, both titles are applicable to the same person. Then at Matthew 11:25 God the Father is here called Lord (Kurios): “the Lord of heaven” which according to some, a lesser deity, because at 1st Corinthians 8:6 you claimed that ‘Lord’ (Kurios) as applied to Jesus Christ, implies an absence of deity! Well then if you are going to be consistent, with your own previous statements, then you must accept that if the Father is “Lord” (kurios) at Matthew 11:25, then he cannot logically also be “God” as well as Lord! So this ridiculous argument is hoisted by the petard of its own flawed logic!